Shafferbill Posted September 24, 2014 Posted September 24, 2014 Very interesting debate. I have a question on an comment made by Dr Craig. He states that Mark writings can be traced back to as eary as 5-6 AD through a "source". but doesn't mention the source. So- I have a thought/question- If Mark had a "source" for his writing around 5-6 AD why doesn't he quote or use Paul writings? Is it because Mark's did not agree with Paul's writings that Christainity is open to all includisng Jews and Gentiles whereas he believed that one has to go through Judaism to become Christian? Quote
PaulS Posted September 26, 2014 Posted September 26, 2014 I don't know of any biblical scholar that dates Mark before 40AD, so I too would be interested in this 'source' that Craig mentions. Quote
JosephM Posted September 26, 2014 Posted September 26, 2014 For anyone interested. The DEBATE IS HERE. Quote
Elen1107 Posted October 12, 2014 Posted October 12, 2014 It's my understanding that both Mark and the writings of Paul were considerably later than that. Marks "source" is generally understood to mean the Q or the Quell gospel {Quell being the German word for source}. This is a non-extant document that has been discovered through the research and deconstruction of the four existing gospels. Mark possibly had never heard of Paul. If he did he may not have found him to be of that much importance. At the time Paul was just one of probably many evangelists that were active at the time. It wasn't until his letters were compiled and made cannon at the end of the 4th century that Paul became famous and well known. Also Marks gospel perty much ends with the resurrection of Jesus, Paul in the New Testament doesn't come along and isn't converted until sometime after the resurrection, so Paul isn't really part of the story and time frame that Mark is describing. Concerning the idea that Paul supported the conversion to Christianity of non-Jewish people while the other evangelists and Christ did not, I've always found this kind of confusing. It seems to me that Jesus corresponded and related to many non-Jewish people, as shown in the New Testament. In fact one of his first converts was the woman by the well, who clearly was not Jewish. In fact I believe she is the first convert out side of the apostles during Christ's ministry and after his baptism. The "good neighbor" is a Samaritan, again not a Jewish person. Here this reference is used in proclaiming what has come to be understood as the 2nd or 11th commandment, replacing or supplementing the Mosaic commandments with a new idea and a new way of fulfilling the law. There are several other references of this type in the gospels. I've never quite gotten how people can say that Jesus and the 12 apostles were not in favor of the conversion of non-Jewish people. Thanks for reading Quote
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