Very interesting debate. I have a question on an comment made by Dr Craig. He states that Mark writings can be traced back to as eary as 5-6 AD through a "source". but doesn't mention the source. So- I have a thought/question-
If Mark had a "source" for his writing around 5-6 AD why doesn't he quote or use Paul writings? Is it because Mark's did not agree with Paul's writings that Christainity is open to all includisng Jews and Gentiles whereas he believed that one has to go through Judaism to become Christian?