Rabbi Benjamin

Ashkenaz Jews always say 'besulah' but if the word in the Biblical text is pointed as a 'tav' they will layn it (chant it from a kosher scroll) as 'betulah'. Oh, how I wish I knew Greek so as to be able to discuss those words with you, too. Rabbi Benjamin

Personally, I get tired of discussing the issue and would like to move on - not only because it's a non-issue for me but also because I have found that the vast majority of people who argue so vociferously against homosexuality are fundamentalists who are not going to change their minds based upon logical argument. I tire quickly of them, just as I would if forced to argue with a psychotic person who is determined to pronounce the sky green. I agree with Joseph that most minds are changed not through argument but by getting to know gay people personally. So, I guess I would favor simple, matter-of-fact statements from various faith groups - as part of their charters or whatever - affirming acceptance of the gay lifestyle. Let the vociferous naysayers go argue amongst themselves on an island somewhere. Rabbi Benjamin

Exactly. 'Besulah' is the one word used in the Hebrew Bible, Mishnah, and Talmud to indicate virginity. And, for those of you who might wonder, 'besulah' and 'betulah' are both correct transliterations of the same Hebrew word. The first transliteration reflects Ashkenaz pronunciation while the second reflects Modern Hebrew pronunciation. Same word. Rabbi Benjamin

The Hebrew word generally translated by Christian interpreters as 'virgin' does not mean 'virgin' but rather merely 'young woman'. Virginity, to this day, is an important concept within Judaism as it has legal consequences, and so we are very careful not to bandy about terms. When a woman is a virgin, we use the word 'besulah' - virgin - and that's exactly what we mean. Rabbi Benjamin

Neon, this is fascinating. I hadn't heard this explanation but it does sound quite plausible and logical. I am especially drawn to it, given that it explains the inclusion of the words 'as a woman' in the prohibition. Rabbi Benjamin

George, what does PCUSA stand for? Thanks. Rabbi Benjamin

Doug, the explanation I provided here is the very one passed down from generation to generation, the very argument in effect even at the time of Jesus - and the only one Jesus would have been familiar with. I did not make this up, Doug. Also, please note that I am a Litvish rabbi - an ultra-Orthodox rabbi, not a liberal one: the explanation I provided is the most right-wing Jewish explanation on the books. Remember, first of all: the OT is a Jewish work; Jewish culture and thinking are at work here. If we want to understand the original OT laws, we have to think like Jews, not as Christians. Logically, given that the NT was not written at the time, we have to take the OT words alone as our basis for our initial argument as to what the 'original' laws were all about. Given that, we only know that men were forbidden to have sex with other men while women were not forbidden to have sex with other women. If homosexuality were to be forbidden outright, we would have expected statements to be made regarding male and female homosexuality side by side, as the Bible states other laws, such as, "A man may not wear a woman's garments and a woman may not wear a man's garments." Given no prohibition against female homosexuality, we must ask why the prohibition against male homosexuality? The prohibition must not have anything to do with homosexuality itself but rather something else. The obvious 'something else' is the spilling of seed: men spill (waste) their reproductive seed while engaging in homosexual relationships but women do not spill (waste) their seed during homosexual relationships. At the time, it was believed that men had limited reproductive capacities, and that wasting semen was therefore quite wrong; a man who purposefully engaged in sexual behavior that could not possibly impregnate a woman was seen as purposefully ignoring G-d's commandment to "be fruitful and multiply'". On the other hand, women were believed to have unlimited reproductive powers, up until a certain age, and so it was thought that women could engage in sexual behaviors that did not lead to impregnation without defying the commandments. Judaism is very concerned, even today, about keeping G-d's commandment to be fruitful and multiply. The Torah is quite explicit about the importance of not spilling seed: it is recorded that G-d took the lives of men who spilled their seed. It is quite logical that the law prohibiting male homosexual acts is all about just that - the prohibition against the spilling of seed - and, in deed, that is exactly the explanation of our Jewish Sages going back literally thousands of years. I have explained the prohibition to you as Jesus and his followers would have understood it. Rabbi Benjamin

Hello Doug, I'm familiar with Peter's dream. "G-d told him not to call anything impure that G-d has made clean." Very true. So, if G-d indirectly declared lesbiansim 'clean' in the OT, why are Christians calling lesbianism 'unclean'? In this particular case, the NT obviously does not uphold the OT teachings. Rabbi Benjamin

George, I do think that's exactly what is happening: homophobics are searching for Biblical texts to support their bigotry, just as slave owners once searched the Bible for texts to support their 'ownership' of African Americans and their 'right' to beat them into submission. Rabbi Benjamin

If homosexuality is a terrible abomination, why isn't lesbianism prohibited in the OT? Again, the prohibition against male sexuality is all about 'spilling seed'. Male homosexuality is listed in Leviticus right along with all the other 'abominations': eating shellfish, eating non-kosher meat, wearing garments mixed with flax and wool, sowing fields with mixed types of seed.... How is it that Christians believe that that homosexuality is so evil and must be stamped out while, at the same time, eating shellfish, eating non-kosher meat, wearing non-kosher garments...? I understand that Christians believe that Christ relieved them from having to uphold the Jewish covenant, but then why continue to pick and choose which laws are 'good' to observe and which ones 'bad'? Doesn't make a wit of sense to me. Rabbi Benjamin

I am fluent in Biblical Hebrew. Our friend above is correct: the Old Testament pasukim (verses) in Leviticus are straightforward and refer to a man lying with another man. NB that only male homosexuality was proscribed - lesbianism was not. Our Sages teach that a male wastes his seed when copulating with anyone other than a woman, and so male homosexuality was forbidden given that G-d clearly commanded his people to 'be fruitful and multiply'. Women do not 'waste their seed' when engaging in sexual acts with other women and that's why lesbianism was not forbidden. Regarding the incident of Soddom and Gemorrah: the men who attacked Lot's home and demanded that the 'men' (angels, malachim) be given over to them for sex were not homosexuals, per se. Rape is not a crime of passion but rather born of a criminal desire to control, dominate, and injure another; the men of Soddom and Gemmorrah were attempting to control, dominate, and humiliate the strangers in their midst, just as heterosexual males will, at times, rape a man in order to humiliate him, to 'teach him a lesson'. This really had nothing to do with homosexuality, about sexual preferences. The sin of Soddom and Gemmorrah was a lack of hospitality, a lack of loving kindness - and this was the sin reflected in the story. Rabbi Benjamin